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Get to know about the target audience of the NCLEX-RN Exam
The target audience of the NCLEX-RN exam is those nursing professionals who are preparing for NCLEX-RN exam. The nursing professionals who are preparing for NCLEX-RN exam need to be aware of the exam syllabus and the important points in it. This is the first step in your preparation for NCLEX-RN exam. Cram the study guide with the relevant content and study it thoroughly. Puncture and laceration is another important area of knowledge that you need to know well. Practice the NCLEX-RN sample questions and answers as many times as possible. The study guide provides you with all the information you need to pass your NCLEX-RN exam. You will need to focus more on the study guide. Weight gain is a very common problem among the nursing professionals who are preparing for NCLEX-RN exam. Policy and procedure is another important point that needs to be known well before you start the preparation. Textbooks and notes are the two most important sources of information for you in the NCLEX-RN exam. Exam sources such as flashcards, practice exams and question papers will help you prepare for the NCLEX-RN Dumps. Question bank is another important source of information for the nursing professionals who are preparing for NCLEX-RN exam. You can use it as an effective resource of information to pass your NCLEX-RN exam.
Discuss the key features of the exam.
There are several key features of the exam:
It tests your ability to apply the knowledge you learned in nursing school to the nursing process.
It tests if you understand the basics of the nursing process.
Reading Comprehension Test: The reading comprehension test consists of 120 multiple choice questions. You have three-and-a-half hours to complete this section.
It is organized according to the nursing framework Meeting Client Needs.
You are tested on how you would use critical thinking skills.
Written test: The written test is two hours long. This means that you will have four-and-a-half hours to complete the exam.
The test includes a clinical scenario.
NEW QUESTION 300
A mother called the physician's office to ask if it would help relieve her small daughter's abdominal pain if she gave an enema and placed a heating pad on the abdomen. Her daughter has a fever and has vomited twice.
The nurse's response is based on the knowledge that:
- A. The symptoms could easily have been caused by constipation, which an enema would relieve
- B. Complaints of stomach ache are common in young children and are generally best ignored
- C. Heat would help to relax the abdominal muscles and relieve her pain
- D. Both heat and enemas stimulate intestinal motility and could increase the risk of perforation
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Constipation does not cause fever or vomiting but may cause anorexia. Risk of
perforation outweighs the possible benefits of an enema. (B) Heat will not relieve her symptoms but will increase intestinal motility and increase the risk of perforation. (C) Heat and enemas are contraindicated where severe abdominal pain is suspected because they increase intestinal motility and the risk of perforation. (D) Complaints accompanied by physical symptoms such as pain, anorexia, and fever should never be ignored.
NEW QUESTION 301
The most important reason to closely assess circumferential burns at least every hour is that they may result in:
- A. Renal damage
- B. Loss of peripheral pulses
- C. Ventricular arrhythmias
- D. Hypovolemia
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Hypovolemia could be a result of fluid loss from thermal injury, but not as a result of the circumferential injury. (B) Renal damage is typically seen because of prolonged hypovolemia or myoglobinuria. (C) Electrical injuries and electrolyte changes typically cause arrhythmias in the burn client. (D) Full-thickness circumferential burns are nonelastic and result in an internal tourniquet effect that compromises distal blood flow when the area involved is an extremity.Circumferential full-thickness torso burns compromise respiratory motion and, when extreme, cardiac return.
NEW QUESTION 302
The nurse in the mental health center is instructing a depressed client about the dietary restrictions necessary in taking her medication, which is a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor. Which of the following is she restricting from the client's diet?
- A. Cream cheese
- B. Yeast bread
- C. Aged cheese
- D. Fresh fruits
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set F
Explanation:
(A) Cream cheese does not contain tyramine, which might cause a hypertensive crisis. (B) Fresh fruits do not contain tyramine, which might cause a hypertensive crisis. (C) Aged or matured cheese combined with a monoamine oxidase predisposes the client to a hypertensive crisis. (D) Bread products raised with yeast do not contain tyramine.
NEW QUESTION 303
While the RN is assessing a mother's perineum on her 2nd postpartum day after having a vaginal delivery, the RN notes a large ecchymotic area located to the left of the mother's perineum. Which one of the following interventions should the RN initiate at this time?
- A. Apply ice to the perineum.
- B. Inform the physician.
- C. Have the client expose the area to air.
- D. Encourage the client to take warm sitz baths.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) The area is bruised and painful. This action would do nothing to help with the healing process of the perineum or to provide comfort. (B) Ice is effective immediately after birth to reduce edema and discomfort, but not on the 2nd postpartum day. (C) Sitz baths are useful if the perineum has been traumatized, because the moist heat increases circulation to the area to promote healing, relaxes tissue, and decreases edema. (D) The physician is not notified of bruising, but if a hematoma is present, then the physician is notified.
NEW QUESTION 304
Stat serum electrolytes ordered for a client in acute renal failure revealed a serum potassium level of 6.4.
The physician is immediately notified and orders 50 mL of dextrose and 10 U of regular insulin IV push.
The nurse administering these drugs knows the Rationale for this therapy is to:
- A. Promote rapid protein catabolism
- B. Drive potassium from the serum back into the cells
- C. Protect the myocardium from the effects of hypokalemia
- D. Remove the potassium from the body by renin exchange
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate), a cation exchange resin, exchanges sodium ions for potassium ions in the large intestine reducing the serum potassium. (B) Calcium is administered to protect the myocardium from the adverse effects of hyperkalemia. Serum levels reflect hyperkalemia. (C) Rapid catabolism releases potassium from the body tissue into the bloodstream. Infection and hyperthermia increase the process of catabolism. (D) The administration of dextrose and regular insulin IV forces potassium back into the cells decreasing the potassium in the serum.
NEW QUESTION 305
A 16-year-old diabetic girl has been selected as a cheerleader at her school. She asks the nurse whether she should increase her insulin when she is planning to attend cheerleading practice sessions lasting from 8 to 11 AM. The most appropriate answer would be:
- A. "No, do not increase your insulin. Exercise will not affect your insulin needs."
- B. "No, do not increase your insulin, but eating a snack prior to practice exercise will make insulin more effective and move more glucose into the cells."
- C. "You should ask your doctor about this."
- D. "Yes, increase your insulin by 1 U for each hour of practice because exercise causes the body to need more insulin."
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) A nurse can give this information to a client. (B) Exercise makes insulin more efficient in moving more glucose into the cells. No more insulin is needed. (C) Exercise makes insulin more efficient unless the diabetes is poorly controlled. (D) Exercise makes insulin more efficient in moving more glucose into the cells.
NEW QUESTION 306
Which of the following would differentiate acute from chronic respiratory acidosis in the assessment of the trauma client?
- A. Increased PaCO2
- B. Decreased PaO2
- C. Decreased base excess
- D. Increased HCO3
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set A
Explanation:
(A) Increased CO2 will occur in both acute and chronic respiratory acidosis. (B) Hypoxia does not determine acid-base status. (C) Elevation of HCO3 is a compensatory mechanism in acidosis that occurs almost immediately, but it takes hours to show any effect and days to reach maximum compensation. Renal disease and diuretic therapy may impair the ability of the kidneys to compensate. (D) Base excess is a non-respiratory contributor to acid-base balance. It would increase to compensate for acidosis.
NEW QUESTION 307
A 7-year-old child is brought to the ER at midnight by his mother after symptoms appeared abruptly. The nurse's initial assessment reveals a temperature of 104.5F (40.3C), difficulty swallowing, drooling, absence of a spontaneous cough, and agitation. These symptoms are indicative of which one of the following?
- A. Acute tracheitis
- B. Acute epiglottis
- C. Acute spasmodic croup
- D. Acute laryngotracheobronchitis
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Clinical manifestations of acute tracheitis include a 2-3 day history of URI, croupy cough, stridor, purulent secretions, high fever. (B) Clinical manifestations of spasmodic croup include a history of URI, croupy cough, stridor, dyspnea, low-grade fever, and a slow progression. The age group most affected is 3 months to 3 years. (C) Three clinical observations have been found to be predictive of epiglottitis: the presence of drooling, absence of spontaneous cough, and agitation.Epiglottitis has a rapid onset that is accompanied by high fever and dysphagia. (D) Clinical manifestations of acute laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB) include slow onset with a history of URI, low-grade fever, stridor, brassy cough, and irritability.
NEW QUESTION 308
A client returns for her 6-month prenatal checkup and has gained 10 lb in 2 months. The results of her physical examination are normal. How does the nurse interpret the effectiveness of the instruction about diet and weight control?
- A. She is compliant with her diet as previously taught.
- B. She needs to be placed on a restrictive diet immediately.
- C. She needs further instruction and reinforcement.
- D. She needs to increase her caloric intake.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set A
Explanation:
(A) She is probably not compliant with her diet and exercise program. Recommended weight gain during second and third trimesters is approximately 12 lb. (B) Because of her excessive weight gain of 10 lb in 2 months, she needs re-evaluation of her eating habits and reinforcement of proper dietary habits for pregnancy.
A 2200-calorie diet is recommended for most pregnant women with a weight gain of 27-30 lb over the 9-month period. With rapid and excessive weight gain, PIH should also be suspected. (C) She does not need to increase her caloric intake, but she does need to re-evaluate dietary habits. Ten pounds in 2 months is excessive weight gain during pregnancy, and health teaching is warranted. (D) Restrictive dieting is not recommended during pregnancy.
NEW QUESTION 309
A client is admitted to the labor unit. On vaginal examination, the presenting part in a cephalic presentation was at station plus two. Station 12 means that the:
- A. Biparietal diameter is 5 cm above the ischial spines
- B. Presenting part is 2 cm above the level of the ischial spines
- C. Biparietal diameter is at the level of the ischial spines
- D. Presenting part is 2 cm below the level of the ischial spines
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Station is the relationship of the presenting part to an imaginary line drawn between the ischial spines.
If the presenting part is above the ischial spines, the station is negative. (B) When the biparietal diameter is at the level of the ischial spines, the presenting part is generally at a +4 or +5 station. (C) Station is the relationship of the presenting part to an imaginary line drawn between the ischial spines. If the presenting part is below the ischial spines, the station is positive. Thus, 2 cm below the ischial spines is the station +2.
(D) When the biparietal diameter is above the ischial spines by 5 cm, the presenting part is usually engaged or at station 0.
NEW QUESTION 310
The nurse is caring for a laboring client. Assessment data include cervical dilation 9 cm; contractions every
1-2 minutes; strong, large amount of "bloody show." The most appropriate nursing goal for this client would be:
- A. Enlist additional caregiver support to ensure client's safety.
- B. Provide strategies to maintain client control.
- C. Assist with assessment procedures.
- D. Maintain client's privacy.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Privacy may help the laboring client feel safer, but measures that enhance coping take priority. (B) The frequency of assessments do increase in transition, but helping the client to maintain control and cope with this phase of labor takes on importance. (C) This laboring client is in transition, the most difficult part of the first stage of labor because of decreased frequency, increased duration and intensity, and decreased resting phase of the uterine contraction. The client's ability to cope is most threatened during this phase of labor, and nursing actions aredirected toward helping the client to maintain control. (D) Safety is a concern throughout labor, but helping the client to cope takes on importance in transition.
NEW QUESTION 311
A client's renal calculi are identified as consisting of calcium phosphate. Which of the following diets would be appropriate?
- A. Two-gram sodium diet
- B. Low calcium, high phosphorus
- C. Low calcium and phosphorus, acid ash
- D. High calcium, low phosphorus
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) The stones consist of calcium and phosphorus; therefore, these minerals should be avoided. A high-calcium diet is contraindicated. (B) A high-phosphorus diet is contraindicated. (C) A 2-g sodium diet is a cardiac diet. (D) A low-calcium and phosphorus diet will reduce further calculi formation.
NEW QUESTION 312
The healthcare team determines that an elderly client has had progressive changes in memory over the last 2 years that have interfered with her personal, social, or occupational functioning. Her memory, learning, attention, and judgment have all been affected in some way. These symptoms describe which of the following conditions?
- A. Mania
- B. Dementia
- C. Parkinsonism
- D. Delirium
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) These changes are common characteristics of dementia. (B) Parkinson's disease affects the muscular system. Progressive memory changes are not presenting symptoms. (C) Delirium includes an altered level of consciousness, which is not found in dementia. (D) Mania includes symptoms of hyperactivity, flight of ideas, and delusions of grandeur.
NEW QUESTION 313
A client had abdominal surgery this morning. The nurse notices that there is a small amount of bloody drainage on his surgical dressing. The nurse would document this as what type of drainage?
- A. Serosanguinous
- B. Sanguinous
- C. Catarrhal
- D. Purulent
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Drainage from a surgical incision usually proceeds from sanguinous to serosanguinous. (B) Purulent drainage usually indicates infection and should not be seen initially from a surgical incision. (C) Drainage from a surgical incision is initially sanguinous, proceeding to serosanguinous, and then to serous. (D) Catarrhal is a type of exudate seen in upper respiratory infections, not in surgical incisions.
NEW QUESTION 314
Three weeks following discharge, a male client is readmitted to the psychiatric unit for depression. His wife stated that he had threatened to kill himself with a handgun. As the nurse admits him to the unit, he says, "I wish I were dead because I am worthless to everyone; I guess I am just no good." Which response by the nurse is most appropriate at this time?
- A. "I know with your wife and new baby that you do have a lot to live for."
- B. "Don't you think this is a sign of your illness?"
- C. "You've been feeling sad and alone for some time now?"
- D. "I don't think you are worthless. I'm glad to see you, and we will help you."
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) This response does not acknowledge the client's feelings.
(B) This is a closed question and does not encourage communication.
(C) This response negates the client's feelings and does not require a response from the client. (D) This acknowledges the client's implied thoughts and feelings and encourages a response.
NEW QUESTION 315
After instructing a female client on circumcision care, the nursery nurse asks her to restate some of the key points covered. Which statement shows that the client will properly care for her son's circumcision?
- A. "I'll keep a close watch on it for a day or two."
- B. "I'll make sure that I report any drainage around where they operated."
- C. "I'll apply alcohol to the area daily to clean it and prevent any infection."
- D. "I'll make sure I soak the gauze with warm water first, before I take it off each time."
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Before petrolatum gauze is removed, it should be soaked with warm water to prevent trauma to adherent tissues. (B) A yellow exudate often forms normally over the surgical site. Only if it becomes foul- smelling and purulent would it need to be reported. (C) Alcohol should never be used on the site; this would be extremely painful to the infant. (D) Special care and observance should continue until the site is completely covered with clean, pink granulation tissue, which could take 7-10 days.
NEW QUESTION 316
A physician tells the nurse that he wants to orally intubate a client with a No. 8 endotracheal tube. The finding of normal breath sounds on the right side of the chest and diminished, distant breath sounds on the left side of the chest of a newly intubated client is probably due to:
- A. A right hemothorax
- B. A left hemothorax
- C. An inadequate mechanical ventilator
- D. Intubation of the right mainstem bronchus
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Although a left hemothorax could cause diminished and distant breath sounds, it is irrelevant to this situation. (B) A right hemothorax will not cause diminished and distant breath sounds on the left side of the chest. (C) The right mainstem bronchus is most frequently intubated in error because the angle of the right mainstem bronchus is very small as compared with that of the left mainstem bronchus. Because ventilation is only occurring on the right side, the nurse would auscultate diminished and distant breath sounds on the left. (D) An inadequate mechanical ventilator has no relationship to this situation.
NEW QUESTION 317
A client is being treated for congestive heart failure. His medical regimen consists of digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg po daily and furosemide 20 mg po bid. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor?
- A. Calcium
- B. Magnesium
- C. Intake and output
- D. Potassium
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Intake and output are not laboratory tests. (B) Serum calcium levels are not affected by digoxin or furosemide. (C) Furosemide is a non-potassium-sparing loop diuretic. Hypokalemia is a common side effect of furosemide and may enhance digoxin toxicity. (D) Serum magnesium levels are not affected by digoxin or furosemide.
NEW QUESTION 318
A schizophrenic is admitted to the psychiatric unit. What affect would the nurse expect to observe?
- A. Anger
- B. Hostility
- C. Smiling
- D. Apathy and flatness
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Anger is an emotion that is not necessarily present in schizophrenia. (B) Lack of response to or involvement with environment and distancing are characteristic of schizophrenia. (C) Euphoria is more characteristic of manic-depressive disorder (bipolar disorder). (D) Hostility is an emotion that is not necessarily present in schizophrenia.
NEW QUESTION 319
......
Understand the topics of the NCLEX-RN Exam.
The certification topics of NCLEX-RN Exam
- Developmental Stages and Transitions
- Disease Prevention
- Physical Assessment Techniques
- Ante/Intra/Postpartum and Newborn Care
- Aging Process
- Health Screening
- Health Promotion Programs
- High Risk Behaviors, and Self-Care.
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