Get 2022 Updated Free CompTIA CS0-002 Exam Questions & Answer [Q172-Q195]

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Get 2022 Updated Free CompTIA CS0-002 Exam Questions & Answer

CS0-002 Dumps PDF and Test Engine Exam Questions


CompTIA CS0-002 Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails

Threat and Vulnerability Management - 22%

Explain the importance of threat data and intelligence.1. Intelligence sources
  • Open-source intelligence
  • Proprietary/closed-source intelligence
  • Timeliness
  • Relevancy
  • Accuracy

2. Confidence levels
3. Indicator management

  • Structured Threat Information eXpression (STIX)
  • Trusted Automated eXchange of Indicator Information (TAXII)
  • OpenIoC

4. Threat classification

  • Known threat vs. unknown threat
  • Zero-day
  • Advanced persistent threat

5. Threat actors

  • Nation-state
  • Hacktivist
  • Organized crime
  • Insider threat
    Intentional
    Unintentional

6. Intelligence cycle

  • Requirements
  • Collection
  • Analysis
  • Dissemination
  • Feedback

7. Commodity malware
8. Information sharing and analysis communities

  • Healthcare
  • Financial
  • Aviation
  • Government
  • Critical infrastructure
Given a scenario, utilize threat intelligence to support organizational security.1. Attack frameworks
  • MITRE ATT&CK
  • The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis
  • Kill chain

2. Threat research

  • Reputational
  • Behavioral
  • Indicator of compromise (IoC)
  • Common vulnerability scoring system (CVSS)

3. Threat modeling methodologies

  • Adversary capability
  • Total attack surface
  • Attack vector
  • Impact
  • Likelihood

3. Threat intelligence sharing with supported functions

  • Incident response
  • Vulnerability management
  • Risk management
  • Security engineering
  • Detection and monitoring
Given a scenario, perform vulnerability management activities.1. Vulnerability identification
  • Asset criticality
  • Active vs. passive scanning
  • Mapping/enumeration

2. Validation

  • True positive
  • False positive
  • True negative
  • False negative

3. Remediation/mitigation

  • Configuration baseline
  • Patching
  • Hardening
  • Compensating controls
  • Risk acceptance
  • Verification of mitigation

4. Scanning parameters and criteria

  • Risks associated with scanning activities
  • Vulnerability feed
  • Scope
  • Credentialed vs. non-credentialed
  • Server-based vs. agent-based
  • Internal vs. external
  • Special considerations
    Types of data
    Technical constraints
    Workflow
    Sensitivity levels
    Regulatory requirements
    Segmentation
    Intrusion prevention system (IPS), intrusion detection system (IDS), and firewall settings

5. Inhibitors to remediation

  • Memorandum of understanding (MOU)
  • Service-level agreement (SLA)
  • Organizational governance
  • Business process interruption
  • Degrading functionality
  • Legacy systems
  • Proprietary systems
Given a scenario, analyze the output from common vulnerability assessment tools.1.Web application scanner
  • OWASP Zed Attack Proxy (ZAP)
  • Burp suite
  • Nikto
  • Arachni

2.Infrastructure vulnerability scanner

  • Nessus
  • OpenVAS
  • Qualys

3.Software assessment tools and techniques

  • Static analysis
  • Dynamic analysis
  • Reverse engineering
  • Fuzzing

4.Enumeration

  • Nmap
  • hping
  • Active vs. passive
  • Responder

5. Wireless assessment tools

  • Aircrack-ng
  • Reaver
  • oclHashcat

6. Cloud infrastructure assessment tools

  • ScoutSuite
  • Prowler
  • Pacu
Explain the threats and vulnerabilities associated with specialized technology.1. Mobile
2. Internet of Things (IoT)
3. Embedded
4. Real-time operating system (RTOS)
5. System-on-Chip (SoC)
6. Field programmable gate array (FPGA)
7. Physical access control
8. Building automation systems
9. Vehicles and drones
  • CAN bus

10. Workflow and process automation systems
11. Industrial control system
12. Supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA)

  • Modbus
Explain the threats and vulnerabilities associated with operating in the cloud.1. Cloud service models
  • Software as a Service (SaaS)
  • Platform as a Service (PaaS)
  • Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

2. Cloud deployment models

  • Public
  • Private
  • Community
  • Hybrid

3. Function as a Service (FaaS)/serverless architecture
4. Infrastructure as code (IaC)
5. Insecure application programming interface (API)
6. Improper key management
7. Unprotected storage
8. Logging and monitoring

  • Insufficient logging and monitoring
  • Inability to access
Given a scenario, implement controls to mitigate attacks and software vulnerabilities.1. Attack types
  • Extensible markup language (XML) attack
  • Structured query language (SQL) injection
  • Overflow attack
    Buffer
    Integer
    Heap
  • Remote code execution
  • Directory traversal
  • Privilege escalation
  • Password spraying
  • Credential stuffing
  • Impersonation
  • Man-in-the-middle attack
  • Session hijacking
  • Rootkit
  • Cross-site scripting
    Reflected
    Persistent
    Document object model (DOM)

2. Vulnerabilities

  • Improper error handling
  • Dereferencing
  • Insecure object reference
  • Race condition
  • Broken authentication
  • Sensitive data exposure
  • Insecure components
  • Insufficient logging and monitoring
  • Weak or default configurations
  • Use of insecure functions
    strcpy

Software and Systems Security - 18%

Given a scenario, apply security solutions for infrastructure management.1. Cloud vs. on-premises
2. Asset management
  • Asset tagging

3. Segmentation

  • Physical
  • Virtual
  • Jumpbox
  • System isolation
    Air gap

4. Network architecture

  • Physical
  • Software-defined
  • Virtual private cloud (VPC)
  • Virtual private network (VPN)
  • Serverless

5. Change management
6. Virtualization

  • Virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI)

7. Containerization
8. Identity and access management

  • Privilege management
  • Multifactor authentication (MFA)
  • Single sign-on (SSO)
  • Federation
  • Role-based
  • Attribute-based
  • Mandatory
  • Manual review

9. Cloud access security broker (CASB)
10. Honeypot
11. Monitoring and logging
12. Encryption
13. Certificate management
14. Active defense

Explain software assurance best practices.1. Platforms
Mobile
Web application
Client/server
Embedded
System-on-chip (SoC)
Firmware
2. Software development life cycle (SDLC) integration
3. DevSecOps
4. Software assessment methods
User acceptance testing
Stress test application
Security regression testing
Code review
5. Secure coding best practices
Input validation
Output encoding
Session management
Authentication
Data protection
Parameterized queries
6. Static analysis tools
7. Dynamic analysis tools
8. Formal methods for verification of critical software
9. Service-oriented architecture
  • Security AssertionsMarkup Language (SAML)
  • Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP)
  • Representational State Transfer (REST)
  • Microservices
Explain hardware assurance best practices.1. Hardware root of trust
Trusted platform module (TPM)
Hardware security module (HSM)
2. eFuse
3. Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI)
4. Trusted foundry
5. Secure processing
  • Trusted execution
  • Secure enclave
  • Processor security extensions
  • Atomic execution

6. Anti-tamper
7. Self-encrypting drive
8. Trusted firmware updates
9. Measured boot and attestation
10. Bus encryption

Security Operations and Monitoring - 25%

Given a scenario, analyze data as part of security monitoring activities.1. Heuristics
2. Trend analysis
3. Endpoint
  • Malware
    Reverse engineering
  • Memory
  • System and application behavior
    Known-good behavior
    Anomalous behavior
    Exploit techniques
  • File system
  • User and entity behavior analytics (UEBA)

4. Network

  • Uniform Resource Locator (URL) and domain name system (DNS) analysis
    Domain generation algorithm
  • Flow analysis
  • Packet and protocol analysis
    Malware

5. Log review

  • Event logs
  • Syslog
  • Firewall logs
  • Web application firewall (WAF)
  • Proxy
  • Intrusion detection system (IDS)/Intrusion prevention system (IPS)

6. Impact analysis

  • Organization impact vs. localized impact
  • Immediate vs. total

7. Security information and event management (SIEM) review

  • Rule writing
  • Known-bad Internet protocol (IP)
  • Dashboard

8. Query writing

  • String search
  • Script
  • Piping

9. E-mail analysis

  • Malicious payload
  • Domain Keys Identified Mail (DKIM)
  • Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance (DMARC)
  • Sender Policy Framework (SPF)
  • Phishing
  • Forwarding
  • Digital signature
  • E-mail signature block
  • Embedded links
  • Impersonation
  • Header
Given a scenario, implement configuration changes to existing controls to improve security.1. Permissions
2. Whitelisting
3. Blacklisting
4. Firewall
5. Intrusion prevention system (IPS) rules
6. Data loss prevention (DLP)
7. Endpoint detection and response (EDR)
8. Network access control (NAC)
9. Sinkholing
10. Malware signatures
  • Development/rule writing

11. Sandboxing
12. Port security

Explain the importance of proactive threat hunting.1. Establishing a hypothesis
2. Profiling threat actors and activities
3. Threat hunting tactics
  • Executable process analysis

4. Reducing the attack surface area
5. Bundling critical assets
6. Attack vectors
7. Integrated intelligence
8. Improving detection capabilities

Compare and contrast automation concepts and technologies.1. Workflow orchestration
  • Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response (SOAR)

2. Scripting
3. Application programming interface (API) integration
4. Automated malware signature creation
5. Data enrichment
6. Threat feed combination
7. Machine learning
8. Use of automation protocols and standards

  • Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP)

9. Continuous integration
10. Continuous deployment/delivery

Incident Response - 22%

Explain the importance of the incident response process.1. Communication plan
  • Limiting communication to trusted parties
  • Disclosing based on regulatory/legislative requirements
  • Preventing inadvertent release of information
  • Using a secure method of communication
  • Reporting requirements

2. Response coordination with relevant entities

  • Legal
  • Human resources
  • Public relations
  • Internal and external
  • Law enforcement
  • Senior leadership
  • Regulatory bodies

3. Factors contributing to data criticality

  • Personally identifiable information (PII)
  • Personal health information (PHI)
  • Sensitive personal information (SPI)
  • High value asset
  • Financial information
  • Intellectual property
  • Corporate information
Given a scenario, apply the appropriate incident response procedure.1. Preparation
  • Training
  • Testing
  • Documentation of procedures

2. Detection and analysis

  • Characteristics contributing to severity level classification
  • Downtime
  • Recovery time
  • Data integrity
  • Economic
  • System process criticality
  • Reverse engineering
  • Data correlation

3. Containment

  • Segmentation
  • Isolation

4. Eradication and recovery

  • Vulnerability mitigation
  • Sanitization
  • Reconstruction/reimaging
  • Secure disposal
  • Patching
  • Restoration of permissions
  • Reconstitution of resources
  • Restoration of capabilitiesand services
  • Verification of logging/communication tosecurity monitoring

5. Post-incident activities

  • Evidence retention
  • Lessons learned report
  • Change control process
  • Incident response plan update
  • Incident summary report
  • IoC generation
  • Monitoring
Given an incident, analyze potential indicators of compromise.1. Network-related
  • Bandwidth consumption
  • Beaconing
  • Irregular peer-to-peer communication
  • Rogue device on the network
  • Scan/sweep
  • Unusual traffic spike
  • Common protocol over non-standard port

2. Host-related

  • Processor consumption
  • Memory consumption
  • Drive capacity consumption
  • Unauthorized software
  • Malicious process
  • Unauthorized change
  • Unauthorized privilege
  • Data exfiltration
  • Abnormal OS process behavior
  • File system change or anomaly
  • Registry change or anomaly
  • Unauthorized scheduled task

3. Application-related

  • Anomalous activity
  • Introduction of new accounts
  • Unexpected output
  • Unexpected outbound communication
  • Service interruption
  • Application log
Given a scenario, utilize basic digital forensics techniques.1. Network
  • Wireshark
  • tcpdump

2. Endpoint

  • Disk
  • Memory

3. Mobile
4. Cloud
5. Virtualization
6. Legal hold
7. Procedures
8. Hashing

  • Changes to binaries

9. Carving
10. Data acquisition

Compliance and Assessment - 13%

Understand the importance of data privacy and protection.1. Privacy vs. security
2. Non-technical controls
  • Classification
  • Ownership
  • Retention
  • Data types
  • Retention standards Confidentiality
  • Legal requirements
  • Data sovereignty
  • Data minimization
  • Purpose limitation
  • Non-disclosure agreement (NDA)

3. Technical controls

  • Encryption
  • Data loss prevention (DLP)
  • Data masking
  • Deidentification
  • Tokenization
  • Digital rights management (DRM)
    Watermarking
  • Geographic access requirements
  • Access controls
Given a scenario, apply security concepts in support of organizational risk mitigation.1. Business impact analysis
2. Risk identification process
3. Risk calculation
  • Probability
  • Magnitude

4. Communication of risk factors
5. Risk prioritization

  • Security controls
  • Engineering tradeoffs

6. Systems assessment
7. Documented compensating controls
8. Training and exercises

  • Red team
  • Blue team
  • White team
  • Tabletop exercise

9. Supply chain assessment

  • Vendor due diligence
  • Hardware source authenticity
Explain the importance of frameworks, policies, procedures, and controls.1. Frameworks
  • Risk-based
  • Prescriptive

2. Policies and procedures

  • Code of conduct/ethics
  • Acceptable use policy (AUP)
  • Password policy
  • Data ownership
  • Data retention
  • Account management
  • Continuous monitoring
  • Work product retention

3. Category

  • Managerial
  • Operational
  • Technical

4. Control type

  • Preventative
  • Detective
  • Corrective
  • Deterrent
  • Compensating
  • Physical

5. Audits and assessments

  • Regulatory
  • Compliance

 

NEW QUESTION 172
Which of the following is a best practice when sending a file/data to another individual in an organization?

  • A. When encrypting, split the file: and then compress each file.
  • B. Encrypt and then compress the file.
  • C. Encrypt the file but do not compress it.
  • D. Compress and then encrypt the file.

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 173
A hybrid control is one that:

  • A. is implemented at the enterprise and system levels
  • B. is implemented differently on individual systems
  • C. authenticates using passwords and hardware tokens
  • D. has operational and technical components

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 174
A security analyst is investigating a compromised Linux server.
The analyst issues the ps command and receives the following output.

Which of the following commands should the administrator run NEXT to further analyze the compromised system?

  • A. kill -9 1301
  • B. rpm -V openash-server
  • C. /bin/la -1 /proc/1301/exe
  • D. strace /proc/1301

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 175
A security analyst reviews the following aggregated output from an Nmap scan and the border firewall ACL:

Which of the following should the analyst reconfigure to BEST reduce organizational risk while maintaining current functionality?

  • A. Firewall
  • B. Server2
  • C. PC1
  • D. Server1
  • E. PC2

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 176
Bootloader malware was recently discovered on several company workstations. All the workstations run Windows and are current models with UEFI capability.
Which of the following UEFI settings is the MOST likely cause of the infections?

  • A. Compatibility mode
  • B. Native mode
  • C. Secure boot mode
  • D. Fast boot mode

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 177
An HR employee began having issues with a device becoming unresponsive after attempting to open an email attachment. When informed, the security analyst became suspicious of the situation, even though there was not any unusual behavior on the IDS or any alerts from the antivirus software.
Which of the following BEST describes the type of threat in this situation?

  • A. Zero-day malware
  • B. PII exfiltration
  • C. Known virus
  • D. Packet of death

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 178
Hotspot Question
Malware is suspected on a server in the environment. The analyst is provided with the output of commands from servers in the environment and needs to review all output files in order to determine which process running on one of the servers may be malware. Servers 1, 2 and 4 are clickable. Select the Server which hosts the malware, and select the process which hosts this malware.
Instructions:
If any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please select the Reset button. When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit. Once the simulation is submitted, please select the Next button to continue.



Answer:

Explanation:

 

NEW QUESTION 179
A company's marketing emails are either being found in a spam folder or not being delivered at all. The security analyst investigates the issue and discovers the emails in question are being sent on behalf of the company by a third party in1marketingpartners.com Below is the exiting SPP word:

Which of the following updates to the SPF record will work BEST to prevent the emails from being marked as spam or blocked?
A)

B)

C)

D)

  • A. Option D
  • B. Option A
  • C. Option C
  • D. Option B

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 180
A security analyst receives a mobile device with symptoms of a virus infection. The virus is morphing whenever it is from sandbox to sandbox to analyze. Which of the following will help to identify the number of variations through the analysis life cycle?

  • A. Log viewers
  • B. Journaling
  • C. Hashing utilities
  • D. OS and process analysis

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 181
A security analyst needs to obtain the footprint of the network. The footprint must identify the following information;
* TCP and UDP services running on a targeted system
* Types of operating systems and versions
* Specific applications and versions
Which of the following tools should the analyst use to obtain the data?

  • A. ZAP
  • B. Prowler
  • C. Nmap
  • D. Reaver

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 182
For machine learning to be applied effectively toward security analysis automation, it requires __________.

  • A. relevant training data.
  • B. a threat feed API.
  • C. a multicore, multiprocessor system.
  • D. anomalous traffic signatures.

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 183
Which of the following policies would slate an employee should not disable security safeguards, such as host firewalls and antivirus on company systems?

  • A. Acceptable use policy
  • B. Account management policy
  • C. Password policy
  • D. Code of conduct policy

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 184
A monthly job to install approved vendor software updates and hot fixes recently stopped working. The security team performed a vulnerability scan, which identified several hosts as having some critical OS vulnerabilities, as referenced in the common vulnerabilities and exposures (CVE) database.
Which of the following should the security team do NEXT to resolve the critical findings in the most effective manner? (Choose two.)

  • A. Resolve the monthly job issues and test them before applying them to the production network.
  • B. Manually patch the computers on the network, as recommended on the CVE website.
  • C. Remove the servers reported to have high and medium vulnerabilities.
  • D. Tag the computers with critical findings as a business risk acceptance.
  • E. Patch the required hosts with the correct updates and hot fixes, and rescan them for vulnerabilities.
  • F. Harden the hosts on the network, as recommended by the NIST framework.

Answer: D,F

 

NEW QUESTION 185
The development team recently moved a new application into production for the accounting department. After this occurred, the Chief Information Officer (CIO) was contacted by the head of accounting because the application is missing a key piece of functionality that is needed to complete the corporation's quarterly tax returns. Which of the following types of testing would help prevent this from reoccurring?

  • A. Security regression testing
  • B. Input validation testing
  • C. User acceptance testing
  • D. Static code testing

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 186
Which of the following types of policies is used to regulate data storage on the network?

  • A. Acceptable use
  • B. Password
  • C. Account management
  • D. Retention

Answer: D

Explanation:
Reference:
http://www.css.edu/administration/information-technologies/computing-policies/computer-and- network-policies.html

 

NEW QUESTION 187
A human resources employee sends out a mass email to all employees that contains their personnel records. A security analyst is called in to address the concern of the human resources director on how to prevent this from happening in the future.
Which of the following would be the BEST solution to recommend to the director?

  • A. Install a data loss prevention system, and train human resources employees on its use.
    Provide PII training to all employees at the company. Encrypt PII information.
  • B. Train all employees. Encrypt data sent on the company network. Bring in privacy personnel to present a plan on how PII should be handled.
  • C. Enforce encryption on all emails sent within the company. Create a PII program and policy on how to handle data. Train all human resources employees.
  • D. Install specific equipment to create a human resources policy that protects PII data. Train company employees on how to handle PII data. Outsource all PII to another company. Send the human resources director to training for PII handling.

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 188
A recent vulnerability scan found four vulnerabilities on an organization's public Internet-facing IP addresses.
Prioritizing in order to reduce the risk of a breach to the organization, which of the following should be remediated FIRST?

  • A. A cipher that is known to be cryptographically weak.
  • B. An HTTP response that reveals an internal IP address.
  • C. A buffer overflow that allows remote code execution.
  • D. A website using a self-signed SSL certificate.

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 189
An incident response team is responding to a breach of multiple systems that contain PII and PHI. Disclosing the incident to external entities should be based on:

  • A. the communication plan
  • B. senior management's guidance
  • C. the responder's discretion
  • D. the public relations policy

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 190
A security analyst at a large financial institution is evaluating the security posture of a smaller financial company. The analyst is performing the evaluation as part of a due diligence process prior to a potential acquisition. With which of the following threats should the security analyst be MOST concerned? (Choose two.)

  • A. The parent company is only going through this process to identify and steal the intellectual property of the smaller company.
  • B. The industry regulator may decide that the acquisition will result in unfair competitive advantage if the acquisition were to take place.
  • C. Employees at the company being acquired will be hostile to the security analyst and may not provide honest answers.
  • D. Breach of confidentiality and market risks can occur if the potential acquisition is leaked to the press.
  • E. The company being acquired may already be compromised and this could pose a risk to the parent company's assets.
  • F. Employees at the company being acquired will be hostile to the security analyst and may not provide honest answers.

Answer: B,E

 

NEW QUESTION 191
A company wants to reduce the cost of deploying servers to support increased network growth. The company is currently unable to keep up with the demand, so it wants to outsource the infrastructure to a cloud-based solution.
Which of the following is the GREATEST threat for the company to consider when outsourcing its infrastructure?

  • A. The cloud service provider is unable to issue sufficient documentation for configurations.
  • B. The cloud service provider is unable to provide sufficient logging and monitoring.
  • C. The cloud service provider has an SLA for system uptime that is lower than 99 9%.
  • D. The cloud service provider conducts a system backup each weekend and once a week during peak business times.

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 192
Which of the following is the MOST secure method to perform dynamic analysis of malware that can sense when it is in a virtual environment?

  • A. Place the malware on a virtual server running SIFT and begin analysis.
  • B. Place the malware on a virtual server connected to a VLAN.
  • C. Place the malware on an isolated virtual server disconnected from the network.
  • D. Place the malware in a virtual server that is running Windows and is connected to the network.

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 193
An organization is experiencing issues with emails that are being sent to external recipients Incoming emails to the organization are working fine. A security analyst receives the following screenshot ot email error from the help desk.

The analyst the checks the email server and sees many of the following messages in the logs.
Error 550 - Message rejected
Which of the following is MOST likely the issue?

  • A. Port 25 is not open.
  • B. The DMARC queue is full
  • C. The DKIM private key has expired
  • D. SPF is failing.

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 194
An information security analyst observes anomalous behavior on the SCADA devices in a power plant. This behavior results in the industrial generators overheating and destabilizing the power supply.
Which of the following would BEST identify potential indicators of compromise?

  • A. Use Burp Suite to capture packets to the SCADA device's IP.
  • B. Use Wireshark to capture packets between SCADA devices and the management system.
  • C. Use tcpdump to capture packets from the SCADA device IP.
  • D. Use Nmap to capture packets from the management system to the SCADA devices.

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 195
......


What is CompTIA CS0-002 Exam

The new CompTIA CS0-002 Exam has been updated to reflect changes in the industry, as well as the need for security experts to focus on the security of software programs and be more aggressive in their knowledge of defense and risk. Security and safety experts must also ensure that their work complies with the IT regulatory standards that affect their daily work. With the ultimate goal of proactively safeguarding and continually improving the security of a company, CySA + will verify that the actual candidate has the skills and capabilities to: Take advantage of knowledge and risk detection strategies, Analyze and translate data, Identify and correct, vulnerabilities, Suggest preventive measures, Respond effectively to events and retrieve events


CompTIA CS0-002 is a prerequisite exam for the CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) certification. This certificate is designed to validate the skills and knowledge of the professionals looking to demonstrate their ability to apply behavioral analytics to devices and networks to detect, combat, and prevent cybersecurity threats via consistent security monitoring.

 

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