The Best Practice Test Preparation for the CRISC Certification Exam
CRISC Exam Dumps, Practice Test Questions BUNDLE PACK
ISACA CRISC Exam is widely recognized as one of the most challenging and rigorous certification exams in the IT industry. CRISC exam covers a wide range of topics related to risk management and information systems control, including risk identification and assessment, risk response and mitigation, information security and compliance, and IT governance. To pass the exam, candidates must demonstrate a deep understanding of these topics, as well as the ability to apply this knowledge to real-world situations.
ISACA CRISC (Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control) certification exam is one of the most highly respected and sought-after certifications in the field of risk management and information systems control. CRISC exam is designed to test the knowledge and skills of professionals who are responsible for managing risks related to information systems and technology in their organizations.
NEW QUESTION # 820
Which of the following activities would BEST facilitate effective risk management throughout the organization?
- A. Conducting periodic risk assessments
- B. Performing frequent audits
- C. Reviewing risk-related process documentation
- D. Performing a business impact analysis
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 821
Which of the following is MOST useful for measuring the existing risk management process against a desired state?
- A. Balanced scorecard
- B. Risk scenario analysis
- C. Capability maturity model
- D. Risk management framework
Answer: C
Explanation:
The most useful tool for measuring the existing risk management process against a desired state is the capability maturity model, as it provides a structured and standardized way to assess the current and target levels of maturity, performance, and effectiveness of the risk management process, and to identify the gaps and improvement opportunities. The balanced scorecard, the risk management framework, and the risk scenario analysis are not the most useful tools, as they are more related to the evaluation, design, or identification of the risk management process, respectively, rather than the measurement of the risk management process. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 154.
NEW QUESTION # 822
You are the project manager of the GHY Project for your company. You need to complete a project management process that will be on the lookout for new risks, changing risks, and risks that are now outdated. Which project management process is responsible for these actions?
- A. Risk analysis
- B. Risk monitoring and controlling
- C. Risk identification
- D. Risk planning
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The risk monitoring and controlling is responsible for identifying new risks, determining the status of risks that may have changed, and determining which risks may be outdated in the project.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Risk planning creates the risk management plan and determines how risks will be identified, analyzed, monitored and controlled, and responded to.
C: Risk identification is a process that identifies risk events in the project.
D: Risk analysis helps determine the severity of the risk events, the risks' priority, and the probability and impact of risks.
NEW QUESTION # 823
Implementing which of the following controls would BEST reduce the impact of a vulnerability that has been exploited?
- A. Deterrent control
- B. Detective control
- C. Corrective control
- D. Preventive control
Answer: C
Explanation:
A vulnerability is a system flaw or weakness that can be exploited by a threat actor, potentially leading to a security breach or incident. A vulnerability that has been exploited means that a threat actor has successfully taken advantage of the vulnerability and compromised the system or network. Implementing controls can help reduce the impact of a vulnerability that has been exploited, by limiting or preventing the damage or loss caused by the security breach or incident. Controls are the mechanisms or procedures that ensure the security, reliability, and quality of an IT system or process. Controls can be classified into different types, depending on their purpose and function. The four types of controls mentioned in the question are:
* Detective control: A control that monitors and detects the occurrence or attempt of a security breach or incident, and alerts the appropriate personnel or system. For example, a log analysis tool that identifies and reports any unauthorized access or activity on the system or network.
* Deterrent control: A control that discourages or prevents a threat actor from exploiting a vulnerability or performing a malicious action, by increasing the perceived difficulty, risk, or cost of doing so. For example, a warning message that informs the user of the legal consequences of unauthorized access or use of the system or network.
* Preventive control: A control that blocks or stops a threat actor from exploiting a vulnerability or performing a malicious action, by eliminating or reducing the vulnerability or the opportunity. For example, a firewall that filters and blocks any unwanted or malicious traffic from entering or leaving the system or network.
* Corrective control: A control that restores or repairs the system or network to its normal or desired state, after a security breach or incident has occurred, by fixing or removing the vulnerability or the impact.
For example, a backup and recovery tool that restores the data or functionality of the system or network that has been corrupted or lost due to the security breach or incident.
The best type of control for reducing the impact of a vulnerability that has been exploited is the corrective control, because it directly addresses the damage or loss caused by the security breach or incident, and restores the system or network to its normal or desired state. Corrective controls can help minimize the negative consequences of a security breach or incident, such as downtime, data loss, reputational harm, legal liability, or regulatory sanctions. Corrective controls can also help prevent or reduce the recurrence of the security breach or incident, by fixing or removing the vulnerability that has been exploited. References = Types of Security Controls, Security Controls: What They Are and Why You Need Them, Security Controls:
Definition, Types & Examples.
NEW QUESTION # 824
Which of the following establishes mandatory rules, specifications and metrics used to measure compliance against quality, value, etc?
- A. Legal requirements
- B. Practices
- C. Explanation:
Standard establishes mandatory rules, specifications and metrics used to measure compliance against quality, value, etc. Standards are usually intended for compliance purposes and to provide assurance to others who interact with a process or outputs of a process. - D. Standard
- E. Framework
Answer: D
Explanation:
is incorrect. Frameworks are generally accepted, business-process-oriented structures that establish a common language and enable repeatable business processes. Answer:D is incorrect. Practices are frequent or usual actions performed as an application of knowledge. A leading practice would be defined as an action that optimally applies knowledge in a particular area. They are issued by a "recognized authority" that is appropriate to the subject matter. issuing bodies may include professional associations and academic institutions or commercial entities such as software vendors. They are generally based on a combination of research, expert insight and peer review. Answer:B is incorrect. These are legal rules underneath which project has to be.
NEW QUESTION # 825
A risk practitioner observes that hardware failure incidents have been increasing over the last few months.
However, due to built-in redundancy and fault-tolerant architecture, there have been no interruptions to business operations. The risk practitioner should conclude that:
- A. hardware needs to be upgraded
- B. a root cause analysis is required
- C. controls are effective for ensuring continuity
- D. no action is required as there was no impact
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 826
Which of the following would be the GREATEST concern related to data privacy when implementing an Internet of Things (loT) solution that collects personally identifiable information (Pll)?
- A. Insufficient access controls are used on the loT devices.
- B. A privacy impact assessment has not been completed.
- C. The data privacy officer was not consulted.
- D. Data encryption methods apply to a subset of Pll obtained.
Answer: A
Explanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, access controls are the policies, procedures, practices, and technologies that are designed and implemented to prevent unauthorized or inappropriate access to IT resources and data. Access controls are essential for ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data, especially personally identifiable information (Pll), which is any information that can be used to identify, locate, or contact an individual. Insufficient access controls are the greatest concern related to data privacy when implementing an Internet of Things (loT) solution that collects Pll, as they can expose the data to various risks and threats, such as data leakage, theft, loss, corruption, manipulation, or misuse. Insufficient access controls can also cause legal, regulatory, ethical, or reputational issues for the organization, if the data privacy rights and expectations of the individuals are violated or compromised. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 240, 253.
NEW QUESTION # 827
You are the product manager in your enterprise. You have identified that new technologies, products and services are introduced in your enterprise time-to-time. What should be done to prevent the efficiency and effectiveness of controls due to these changes?
- A. Perform Business Impact Analysis (BIA)
- B. Add more controls
- C. Explanation:
As new technologies, products and services are introduced, compliance requirements become more complex and strict; business processes and related information flows change over time. These changes can often affect the efficiency and effectiveness of controls. Formerly effective controls become inefficient, redundant or obsolete and have to be removed or replaced. Therefore, the monitoring process has to receive timely feedback from risk assessments and through key risk indicators (KRIs) to ensure an effective control life cycle. - D. Nothing, efficiency and effectiveness of controls are not affected by these changes
- E. Receive timely feedback from risk assessments and through key risk indicators, and update controls
Answer: E
Explanation:
is incorrect. Efficiency and effectiveness of controls are not affected by the changes in technology or product, so some measure should be taken. Answer: B is incorrect. Most of the time, the addition of controls results in degradation of the efficiency and profitability of a process without adding an equitable level of corresponding risk mitigation, hence better controls are adopted in place of adding more controls. Answer: C is incorrect. A BIA is a discovery process meant to uncover the inner workings of any process. It helps to identify about actual procedures, shortcuts, workarounds and the types of failure that may occur. It involves determining the purpose of the process, whoperforms the process and its output. It also involves determining the value of the process output to the enterprise.
NEW QUESTION # 828
Which of the following would BEST facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements?
- A. Assigning a data owner
- B. Scheduling periodic audits
- C. Implementing a data toss prevention (DLP) solution
- D. Implementing technical controls over the assets
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 829
During the control evaluation phase of a risk assessment, it is noted that multiple controls are ineffective.
Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?
- A. Compare the residual risk to the current risk appetite.
- B. Escalate the control failures to senior management.
- C. Determine the root cause of the control failures.
- D. Recommend risk remediation of the ineffective controls.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The control evaluation phase of a risk assessment is the phase where the risk practitioner evaluates the effectiveness and efficiency of the existing or planned controls that mitigate the identified risks. Controls are the actions or measures that reduce the likelihood or impact of the risks to an acceptable level. The control evaluation phase involves testing, reviewing, and auditing the controls, and identifying any gaps or weaknesses that need to be addressed. If the control evaluation phase reveals that multiple controls are ineffective, the risk practitioner's first course of action should be to determine the root cause of the control failures. The root cause is the underlying or fundamental reason that leads to the problem or issue, such as the control failure. By determining the root cause of the control failures, the risk practitioner can understand why the controls are not working as intended, and what factors or variables are influencing the control performance. This will help the risk practitioner to identify and implement the most appropriate and effective risk response strategy and actions, such as recommending risk remediation, comparing the residual risk, or escalating the control failures. The other options are not the first course of action, as they involve different steps or outcomes of the risk management process:
* Recommend risk remediation of the ineffective controls means that the risk practitioner suggests the actions or measures that can improve or restore the effectiveness of the controls, such as by modifying, replacing, or adding the controls. This may be a useful step in the risk management process, but it is not the first course of action, as it may not address the root cause of the control failures, or may not be feasible or efficient for the enterprise's needs.
* Compare the residual risk to the current risk appetite means that the risk practitioner evaluates the level of risk that remains after considering the existing or planned controls, and compares it with the amount and type of risk that the enterprise is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. This may be a helpful step in the risk management process, but it is not the first course of action, as it may not reflect the true or current level of risk exposure, or may not account for the uncertainties or complexities of the risks or the controls.
* Escalate the control failures to senior management means that the risk practitioner communicates the control failures to the senior leaders of the enterprise, who oversee the enterprise-wide risk management program, and provide guidance and direction to the risk owners and practitioners. This may be a necessary step in the risk management process, but it is not the first course of action, as it may not provide sufficient or timely information or action to address the control failures, or may not reflect the urgency or priority of the control failures. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.3.1, pp. 62-63.
NEW QUESTION # 830
What should be the PRIMARY objective for a risk practitioner performing a post-implementation review of an IT risk mitigation project?
- A. Documenting project lessons learned
- B. Validating the risk mitigation project has been completed
- C. Confirming that the project budget was not exceeded
- D. Verifying that the risk level has been lowered
Answer: D
Explanation:
A post-implementation review (PIR) is a process to evaluate whether the objectives of the project were met and whether the project delivered the expected benefits and outcomes1. The primary objective of a risk practitioner performing a PIR of an IT risk mitigation project is to verify that the risk level has been lowered as a result of the project implementation2. This can be done by comparing the actual risk level with the expected risk level, assessing the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk mitigation controls, and identifying any residual or emerging risks3. Documenting project lessons learned, validating the project completion, and confirming the project budget are important aspects of a PIR, but they are not the primary objective for a risk practitioner, as they do not directly measure the impact of the project on the risk level4. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 5.4:
Post-Implementation Review, pp. 239-241.
NEW QUESTION # 831
Which of the following is a drawback in the use of quantitative risk analysis?
- A. It is based on impact analysis of information assets.
- B. It produces the results in numeric form.
- C. It assigns numeric values to exposures of assets.
- D. It requires more resources than other methods
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 832
Which of the following is MOST helpful to understand the consequences of an IT risk event?
- A. Fault tree analysis
- B. Root cause analysis
- C. Business impact analysis (BIA)
- D. Historical trend analysis
Answer: C
Explanation:
Business impact analysis (BIA) is a process that involves analyzing the potential consequences of an IT risk event on the organization's critical business functions and processes. BIA can help to understand the severity and duration of the disruption, the financial and operational losses, the recovery time objectives, and the recovery point objectives. BIA can also help to prioritize the recovery activities and resources, as well as to determine the acceptable level of risk and the risk mitigation strategies. BIA is the most helpful tool to understand the consequences of an IT risk event, as it provides a comprehensive and quantitative assessment of the impact and the recovery requirements. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.4.2, p. 206-207
NEW QUESTION # 833
Which of the following criteria for assigning owners to IT risk scenarios provides the GREATEST benefit to an organization?
- A. The risk owner is a member of senior leadership in the IT organization.
- B. The risk owner has extensive risk management experience.
- C. The risk owner understands the effect of loss events on business operations.
- D. The risk owner has strong technical aptitude across multiple business systems.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The risk owner should be someone who has the authority, responsibility, and knowledge to manage the risk effectively and align it with the organizational strategy and objectives. The risk owner should also be able to communicate the impact of the risk on the business operations and the value proposition of the risk response.
Understanding the effect of loss events on business operations is a key criterion for assigning risk owners, as it helps to prioritize and mitigate the risks that matter most to the organization.
References
*Why Assigning a Risk Owner is Important and How to Do It Right
*How to Write Strong Risk Scenarios and Statements - ISACA
*What Everybody Ought To Know About Project Risk Owners
NEW QUESTION # 834
Which of the following is the BEST way to determine whether new controls mitigate security gaps in a business system?
- A. Perform a vulnerability assessment.
- B. Complete an offsite business continuity exercise.
- C. Conduct a compliance check against standards.
- D. Measure the change in inherent risk.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A business system is a set of interconnected processes, functions, or activities that support the operations and objectives of a business1. A security gap is a weakness or flaw in a business system that can be exploited by a threat to cause harm or gain unauthorized access2. A control is a measure or mechanism that reduces the likelihood or impact of a security gap or threat3.
The best way to determine whether new controls mitigate security gaps in a business system is to perform a vulnerability assessment. A vulnerability assessment is a process of identifying and evaluating the security gaps and threats in a business system, and testing the effectiveness and efficiency of the controls that are implemented to address them. A vulnerability assessment can help to:
* Measure and compare the current and desired state of the security posture and performance of the business system
* Detect and prioritize the most critical and urgent security gaps and threats that may compromise the business system or its objectives
* Validate and validate the adequacy and reliability of the new controls and their ability to prevent, detect, or respond to security incidents or breaches
* Provide feedback and recommendations for improving the security of the business system and enhancing the security awareness and culture of the organization References = What is a Business System?, What is a Security Gap?, What is a Control?, [What is a Vulnerability Assessment?], [Vulnerability Assessment: A Guide for Business Leaders]
NEW QUESTION # 835
FISMA requires federal agencies to protect IT systems and data. How often should compliance be audited by an external organization?
- A. Every three years
- B. Never
- C. Quarterly
- D. Annually
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Inspection of FISMA is required to be done annually. Each year, agencies must have an independent evaluation of their program. The objective is to determine the effectiveness of the program. These evaluations include:
Testing for effectiveness: Policies, procedures, and practices are to be tested. This evaluation does not
test every policy, procedure, and practice. Instead, a representative sample is tested.
An assessment or report: This report identifies the agency's compliance as well as lists compliance with
FISMA. It also lists compliance with other standards and guidelines.
Incorrect Answers:
B, C, D: Auditing of compliance by external organization is done annually, not quarterly or every three years.
NEW QUESTION # 836
Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic of an effective risk management program?
- A. Key risk indicators are defined.
- B. Controls are mapped to key risk scenarios.
- C. Risk response plans are documented
- D. Risk ownership is assigned
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 837
Which of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) for risk related to IT infrastructure failure?
- A. Percentage of systems with outdated virus protection
- B. Number of times the recovery plan is reviewed
- C. Number of successful recovery plan tests
- D. Percentage of employees who can work remotely
Answer: C
Explanation:
A key control indicator (KCI) is a metric that provides information on the extent to which a given control is meeting its intended objectives in terms of loss prevention, reduction, etc. A KCI should have an explicit relationship to both the specific control and the specific risk against which the control has been implemented.
For risk related to IT infrastructure failure, a possible control is to have a recovery plan that can restore the critical IT services and minimize the impact of the failure. A KCI that can measure the effectiveness of this control is the number of successful recovery plan tests, which indicates how well the recovery plan can be executed in a real scenario. The higher the number of successful tests, the lower the risk of IT infrastructure failure. Therefore, this is the best KCI among the given options. References =
* Integrating KRIs and KPIs for Effective Technology Risk Management
* Key Control Indicator (KCI) - CIO Wiki
* Infrastructure Issues: Understanding and Mitigating Risks
NEW QUESTION # 838
Business areas within an organization have engaged various cloud service providers directly without assistance from the IT department. What should the risk practitioner do?
- A. Recommend a risk assessment be conducted.
- B. Engage with the business area managers to review controls applied.
- C. Escalate to the risk committee.
- D. Recommend the IT department remove access to the cloud services.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The best action for the risk practitioner to take when business areas within an organization have engaged various cloud service providers directly without assistance from the IT department is to recommend a risk assessment be conducted. A risk assessment is a process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks associated with the use of cloud services, such as financial, privacy, compliance, security, performance, quality, and technical risks12. A risk assessment can help to determine the current and potential risk exposure and impact of the cloud services, as well as the effectiveness and efficiency of the existing or proposed controls. A risk assessment can also help to prioritize the risks and to develop and implement appropriate risk response strategies and plans, such as risk avoidance, reduction, sharing, or acceptance. Recommending a risk assessment is the best action, because it can provide valuable information and guidance to the business areas and the IT department for managing the cloud services in a consistent, effective, and efficient manner, and for aligning the cloud services with the organizational objectives, strategy, and risk appetite. The other options are not the best action, although they may be related or subsequent steps in the risk management process.
Recommending the IT department remove access to the cloud services is a drastic and impractical action, as it may disrupt the business operations and services, and it may not address the underlying causes or drivers of the cloud service adoption. Engaging with the business area managers to review controls applied is a useful and collaborative action, as it can help to understand and evaluate the current state and practices of the cloud service usage, and to identify and address any gaps or issues in the control environment. However, this action should be based on or supported by a risk assessment, rather than preceding or replacing it. Escalating to the risk committee is a reporting and communication action, as it can help to inform and involve the senior management and other stakeholders in the risk management process, and to obtain their support and approval for the risk response actions. However, this action should be done after or along with a risk assessment, rather than before or instead of it. References = Best Practices to Manage Risks in the Cloud - ISACA, Cloud Risk Management - PwC UK
NEW QUESTION # 839
After the review of a risk record, internal audit questioned why the risk was lowered from medium to low. Which of the following is the BEST course of action in responding to this inquiry?
- A. Obtain industry benchmarks related to the specific risk
- B. Reopen the risk issue and complete a full assessment
- C. Provide justification for the lower risk rating
- D. Notify the business at the next risk briefing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 840
Which of the following is the MAIN benefit to an organization using key risk indicators (KRIs)?
- A. KRIs provide an early warning that a risk threshold is about to be reached.
- B. KRIs assist in the preparation of the organization's risk profile.
- C. KRIs provide a basis to set the risk appetite for an organization
- D. KRIs signal that a change in the control environment has occurred.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 841
An organization striving to be on the leading edge in regard to risk monitoring would MOST likely implement:
- A. a tool for monitoring critical activities and controls.
- B. Perform a controls assessment.
- C. procedures to monitor the operation of controls.
- D. monitoring activities for all critical assets.
- E. real-time monitoring of risk events and control exceptions.
Answer: E
Explanation:
The best answer is C. real-time monitoring of risk events and control exceptions. Real-time monitoring is a process of continuously collecting and analyzing data and information on the occurrence and impact of risk events and control exceptions, using automated tools and techniques, such as dashboards, alerts, or analytics12. Real-time monitoring can help to identify and respond to the risks and the issues as soon as they happen, and to prevent or mitigate the potential consequences. Real-time monitoring can also help to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the risk management process, and to provide timely and accurate reporting and communication to the stakeholders. Real-time monitoring is the best answer, because it represents a leading-edge practice in risk monitoring, as it leverages the latest technology and innovation, and it enables a proactive and agile approach to risk management. The other options are not the best answer, although they may be useful or necessary for risk monitoring. Procedures to monitor the operation of controls are a part of the risk monitoring process, but they are not the same as or a substitute for real-time monitoring, as they may not be able to capture and address the risks and the issues in a timely manner, and they may rely on manual or periodic methods, rather than automated or continuous ones. A tool for monitoring critical activities and controls is a resource or a device that supports the risk monitoring process, but it is not the same as or a substitute for real-time monitoring, as it may not be able to collect and analyze the data and information in real time, and it may depend on the quality and reliability of the tool. Monitoring activities for all critical assets is a scope or a coverage of the risk monitoring process, but it is not the same as or a substitute for real-time monitoring, as it may not be able to identify and respond to the risks and the issues as soon as they happen, and it may require a lot of resources and efforts. Performing a controls assessment is a process of evaluating and testing the design and operation of the controls, but it is not the same as or a substitute for real-time monitoring, as it may not be able to detect and report the risks and the issues in real time, and it may follow a predefined or scheduled plan, rather than a dynamic or adaptive one. References = Real-Time Risk Monitoring
- ISACA, Real-Time Risk Monitoring: A Case Study - ISACA
NEW QUESTION # 842
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